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That would not be difficult. I should tell you though that it's not really a split - the first band is the full signal, the 2nd band is similar except that the freqs below 200 Hz have been filtered out. And I'm then assuming that the 2nd band is about 30% softer than the first.
If you increase the "split" frequency, the 30% softer will become a higher number, which mean that you'll get bigger volume effects (differences) if there are a lot of lows. That's why I tried to set the "split" frequency as low as possible, 200 seems to just suffice to get rid of high frequency volume drops when loud lows are present.
So one band reacts to the whole spectrum, and the other band to > 200 hz. So when there's alot of bass, the first band reduces volume, and the other band doesn't reduce as much because the bass is (partly) filtered out. However, when there are alot of highs, the first band also reduces volume, and the bass is reduced, right? So effectively in the second case it works as a single band AGC? Or is my theory wrong here?